is specializationOf transitive or not?

All,

The purpose of this email is to seek some clarification on what people think
about the transitive nature of specializationOf.

James' semantics [1] defines this relation as transitive.

Do you think specializationOf is transitive?
If not,  can you give a counter example?

Cheers,
Luc

PS: tracker, this is ISSUE-29


[1] http://www.w3.org/2011/prov/wiki/FormalSemanticsWD3

-- 
Professor Luc Moreau
Electronics and Computer Science   tel:   +44 23 8059 4487
University of Southampton          fax:   +44 23 8059 2865
Southampton SO17 1BJ               email: l.moreau@ecs.soton.ac.uk
United Kingdom                     http://www.ecs.soton.ac.uk/~lavm