Hi, I feel uneasy about the comparison of two xs:dateTime (or xs:date) values when none of them have a timezone. Doing so, we acknowledge that the timezone -which is undetermined when not specified- is identical all over an instance document and (still more controversial IMO) between the schemas and the instance documents. It's kind of implying the notion of a "user's timezone" which I haven't found explicitely described in the recommendation and which we can specify neither in a schema nor in an instance document. Wouldn't be safer to recognize that, like it is the case when a datetime with timezone is compared to a datetime without timezone, there is only a partial order when two datetimes without timezones are compared? Eric -- Rendez-vous à Paris pour le Forum XML. http://www.technoforum.fr/Pages/forumXML01/index.html ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Eric van der Vlist http://xmlfr.org http://dyomedea.com http://xsltunit.org http://4xt.org http://examplotron.org ------------------------------------------------------------------------Received on Saturday, 27 October 2001 04:00:36 GMT
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