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Re: Protocol independence

From: Geoff Arnold <Geoff.Arnold@Sun.COM>
Date: Mon, 07 Apr 2003 12:13:21 -0400
To: Mark Baker <mbaker@idokorro.com>
Cc: Mike Champion <mc@xegesis.org>, www-ws@w3.org
Message-id: <DA12E9C0-6913-11D7-97AE-000393C53568@sun.com>

Everyone who is interested in this topic should probably
be tracking the thread "amazon: rest and soap" over on www-tag@w3.org
(Chris Lilley's comment at 
and Noah's reply at 
http://lists.w3.org/Archives/Public/www-tag/2003Apr/0031.html ).

One important question is the following: if I define a web service as a 
service, and if one of the transports that I can use to convey SOAP is 
what is the significance of *how* I use HTTP to convey SOAP? Do I want 
semantics of SOAP-over-HTTP to be the same as SOAP-over-MOM? If not,
why not? If so, my application semantics must be defined purely at SOAP
and above, and the precise HTTP mapping is relevant only for 
it must be semantically neutral.

This feels trivially obvious, so either I'm wasting your time or I'm 
missing something.....
Received on Monday, 7 April 2003 12:15:41 UTC

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