Would it be legal to have (in the same ontology) a statement Individual( x, ...) as well as a statement Class( x, ...) If it is legal, what would it mean, e.g. can/should it refer to the same 'x'? (I guess this falls under the SEM area) Guus -- A. Th. Schreiber, SWI, University of Amsterdam, Roetersstraat 15 NL-1018 WB Amsterdam, The Netherlands, Tel: +31 20 525 6793 Fax: +31 20 525 6896; E-mail: schreiber@swi.psy.uva.nl WWW: http://www.swi.psy.uva.nl/usr/Schreiber/home.htmlReceived on Thursday, 21 March 2002 08:14:37 GMT
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