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Re: classes as instances

From: Pat Hayes <phayes@ai.uwf.edu>
Date: Thu, 4 Apr 2002 13:48:09 -0600
Message-Id: <p05101522b8d25d1ea0e8@[]>
To: "Guus Schreiber" <schreiber@swi.psy.uva.nl>, <www-webont-wg@w3.org>, "Jonathan Borden" <jonathan@openhealth.org>
(I seem to have missed the original message, sorry)

>"Guus Schreiber" <schreiber@swi.psy.uva.nl>::
>>  Would it be legal to have (in the same ontology) a statement
>>    Individual( x, ...)
>>  as well as a statement
>>    Class( x, ...)
>>  If it is legal, what would it mean, e.g. can/should it refer to the same
>>  'x'?
>  > (I guess this falls under the SEM area)
>  >

I see no reason why not. It would be legal in RDFS (with the same 
'x') and its perfectly meaningful. Any thing can be regarded as a 
class, and also as a property.  (Exactly what is in that class and 
what the property is true of depends on what else you say about it, 
of course.)

However, the description logicians may have some DL reason to disallow it.


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Received on Thursday, 4 April 2002 14:48:09 UTC

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