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RE: why is the HTML4 reference normative?

From: MattO <matto@tellme.com>
Date: Wed, 28 Jul 2004 11:33:44 -0700
To: "'Dan Connolly'" <connolly@w3.org>
Cc: <www-voice@w3.org>
Message-ID: <013301c474d1$6a142af0$6401a8c0@sea.tellme.com>

Thanks for your comment, Dan.

This was an oversight on my part, and I'll fix it for the next published

-----Original Message-----
From: www-voice-request@w3.org [mailto:www-voice-request@w3.org] On Behalf
Of Dan Connolly
Sent: Wednesday, July 28, 2004 8:40 AM
To: www-voice@w3.org
Subject: why is the HTML4 reference normative?

The only reference I can find to HTML4 in the text
is "the <script> element allows the specification of a block of client-side
scripting language code, and is analogous to the [HTML4] <SCRIPT> element."
 -- http://www.w3.org/TR/2004/WD-voicexml21-20040728/#sec-script_expr

That looks informative, to me.

Why is HTML4 listed among the normative references?

Dan Connolly, W3C http://www.w3.org/People/Connolly/
Received on Wednesday, 28 July 2004 14:34:34 UTC

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