RE: Terminology Question concerning Web Architecture and LinkedData

> From: Conal Tuohy [mailto:conal.tuohy@vuw.ac.nz]
>
> On Tue, 2007-07-24 Booth, David (HP Software - Boston) wrote:
> > . . .  For the
> > most part, the only way one can be sure that two URIs really
> > do name the same resource is if they are provably defined to
> > do so, such as: (a) if they are the same URI;
> > (b) if one is declared by its owner to be owl:sameAs the other; 
> > or (c) if the URI declarations are exactly the same.
>
> Why (in b above) only "by its owner"?
> Is it because only the owner of URI A "really knows" what URI A
> means? 

It is because only the URI owner has the authority to declare what
resource that URI names, i.e., to define the association between the URI
and a particular resource.  See WebArch section 2.2.2:
http://www.w3.org/TR/webarch/#uri-assignment

This does *not* mean that the URI owner also owns the resource.  For
example I could mint a URI that identifies your car.

> If so, how does the owner of URI A know what URI B
> "really" means?

Hopefully, by dereferencing B to find an authoritative URI declaration
for B, i.e., a declaration that defines the association between B and a
particular resource.  If B cannot be dereferenced, then you might need
to call B's owner on the phone and ask.


David Booth, Ph.D.
HP Software
+1 617 629 8881 office  |  dbooth@hp.com
http://www.hp.com/go/software

Opinions expressed herein are those of the author and do not represent
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