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Re: [css3-text] Why is the definition of word in text-transform non normative

From: fantasai <fantasai.lists@inkedblade.net>
Date: Thu, 03 May 2012 22:40:24 -0700
Message-ID: <4FA36BC8.2070506@inkedblade.net>
To: www-style@w3.org
On 05/03/2012 06:32 AM, Florian Rivoal wrote:
> Hi,
>
> There may have been discussions about this, but I couldn't find them.
>
> The section about text-transform says "The definition of "word" used for ‘capitalize’ is UA-dependent; [UAX29] is suggested
> (but not required) for determining such word boundaries." Why not require it?
>
> I know there is another issue open to discuss whether the behavior described by UAX29 is really the one we want, but what I am
> asking here is orthogonal to that. Whatever we decide is the desired behavior, why not mandate it?
>
> Is it just to ease the compliance with this (already feature rich) level, with the intention of eventually (maybe at level 4)
> make it mandatory?

It is because neither the spec work nor the implementation work necessary to come up
with exactly what should be the correct definition seemed to be important enough to
define this normatively at this point in time.

~fantasai
Received on Friday, 4 May 2012 05:40:54 GMT

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