W3C home > Mailing lists > Public > www-style@w3.org > June 2012

Re: [css3-text] Why is the definition of word in text-transform non normative

From: Eric Muller <emuller@adobe.com>
Date: Wed, 27 Jun 2012 14:50:08 -0700
Message-ID: <4FEB8010.8030200@adobe.com>
To: <www-style@w3.org>
On 5/3/2012 6:32 AM, Florian Rivoal wrote:
>
> I know there is another issue open to discuss whether the behavior
> described by UAX29 is really the one we want, but what I am asking here is
> orthogonal to that. Whatever we decide is the desired behavior, why not
> mandate it?

Note that the word boundaries defined by UAX#29 are locale-independent. 
It is expected that tailorings would be used to accommodate the locales 
(and there are discussion of various situations in UAX#29). However, it 
is not expected that UAX#29 will ever include such tailorings, CLDR is 
probably a better place (and indeed, CLDR Includes a tailoring of word 
boundaries for Japanese).

The bottom line is that the rules of UAX#29 are not currently nor are 
intended in the future to be a complete answer.

Eric.
Received on Wednesday, 27 June 2012 21:50:30 GMT

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.3.1 : Tuesday, 26 March 2013 17:20:55 GMT