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Re: [css3-fonts] Reference to 'lang' attribute

From: John Daggett <jdaggett@mozilla.com>
Date: Tue, 10 May 2011 21:16:33 -0700 (PDT)
To: fantasai <fantasai.lists@inkedblade.net>
Cc: www-style@w3.org
Message-ID: <966650273.77168.1305087393568.JavaMail.root@zimbra1.shared.sjc1.mozilla.com>
fantasai wrote:

> The spec currently says
>    # Users agents are required to infer the OpenType language system
>    # from the value of the ‘lang’ attribute and use that when selecting
>    # and positioning glyphs using an OpenType font. If the ‘lang’
>    # attribute is not defined, the default OpenType language system must
>    # be used.
> This is a little too specific, since it only applies to HTML, and doesn't
> handle HTTP headers and other such. I suggest using a more abstract phrase
> like "the language of the element (matches :lang())" or "the language
> declared for the element (matches :lang())" or somesuch terminology.
> Referring to the :lang() selector clarifies that the method used here for
> determining the language should be consistent with the methods used
> elsewhere. (I've done this in CSS3 Text as well. Just so we're all on the
> same page, and we don't use a different method for e.g. hyphenation than
> for fonts than for :lang() selection.)

Referencing the :lang pseudo-class makes sense but I think a more
direct reference to the selectors spec is probably better than
"(matches :lang())". I'll mull over the wording.


John Daggett
Received on Wednesday, 11 May 2011 04:17:02 UTC

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