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Re: Even more Fuzzy about FunctionalProperty!

From: Roger L. Costello <costello@mitre.org>
Date: Wed, 05 Mar 2003 08:46:44 -0500
Message-ID: <3E65FFC4.A79B8EAF@mitre.org>
To: www-rdf-logic@w3.org
CC: "Costello,Roger L." <costello@mitre.org>

Peter Crowther wrote:
> > From: Roger L. Costello [mailto:costello@mitre.org]
> > So, my question is this: Are inferences on a
> > FunctionalProperty done in this fashion:
> >
> >    "You can blindly infer that the values are equal."
> >
> > Or, is there some "reconciling" done on the values?
> The latter.

Okay, then what are the "rules" for being able to infer that the values
two instances of a FunctionalProperty are equal?

Suppose that I declare P to be a FunctionalPropery.  Suppose that in
instance 1  P has the value A, and in instance 2 P has the value B. 
What are the rules for allowing me to infer that A = B?

Thanks!  /Roger
Received on Wednesday, 5 March 2003 08:45:36 GMT

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