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RE: Why isn't FunctionalProperty a subClassOf owl:ObjectProperty?

From: Peter Crowther <Peter.Crowther@networkinference.com>
Date: Wed, 5 Mar 2003 08:27:12 -0000
Message-ID: <3BE4D3F0FB726240966DEF40418472B5012CDB@ni-lon-server1.ad.networkinference.com>
To: "Jim Hendler" <hendler@cs.umd.edu>
Cc: <www-rdf-logic@w3.org>

> From: Jim Hendler [mailto:hendler@cs.umd.edu] 
> transitive datatype property is easy - zipcode in the same state
> 
> i.e.
> 
> if zipcode is a datatype property
> and SameStateAs is a property with range:zipcode, domain:zipcode
>   then saying
> SameStateAs is transitive is useful

Mmm.  Good point - and that answers the symmetric one, too, as
sameStateAs should be symmetric.  Thanks, Jim.

Just to muse on this a bit as a real-world application, however, I guess
I'd naturally have modelled it that SameStateAs applies between
addresses, not zipcodes, i.e. an address that has zipcode 20852 is in
the same state as one that has address 20740... etc.  This would better
match my own notion of an address, and would also allow for addresses
with the same code that are in different states --- which may not be
true in the US but is certainly true with UK postcodes as they keep
screwing with boundaries!

Given that there is this more-or-less-equivalent form in this case, what
cases do we know where that transformation *cannot* apply?  I'll respond
to Bob MacGregor's point separately.

		- Peter
Received on Wednesday, 5 March 2003 03:27:20 GMT

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