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Re: Input sought on datatyping tradeoff

From: Brian McBride <bwm@hplb.hpl.hp.com>
Date: Tue, 16 Jul 2002 14:58:21 +0100
Message-Id: <>
To: "Geoff Chappell" <geoff@sover.net>, <www-rdf-logic@w3.org>

At 20:18 15/07/2002 -0400, Geoff Chappell wrote:


>I guess my remaining question boils down to what licenses an rdf processor
>to conclude that the literal on the object side of a datatype property is
>referring to itself while all other literals are (potentially) referring to
>entities other than themselves? Is that just built in to the definition of a
>datatype? because of a implicit or explicit datatype range? or is left to
>"extra-rdf" inference to make that conclusion?

This a good question and I'm don't think I can answer it definitively 
because the WG hasn't decided.  I personally tend to think of it as being 
built into the definition of a datatype, but I'd have to wait and see the 
model theory for this approach before committing myself.

Received on Tuesday, 16 July 2002 10:00:11 UTC

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