W3C home > Mailing lists > Public > www-rdf-interest@w3.org > April 2003

Re: URI for language identifiers

From: Miles Sabin <miles@milessabin.com>
Date: Wed, 2 Apr 2003 13:38:26 +0100
To: www-rdf-interest@w3.org
Message-Id: <200304021338.26258.miles@milessabin.com>

Patrick Stickler wrote,
> While it may be true that I cannot point to a specific line of a
> specific spec that clearly defines such a concept of URI ownership, I
> think it's pretty naive to presume that it doesn't exist.

Why?

When you're using social/legal concepts like "ownership" you need to be 
able to point to some technical or legal rule which recognizes it (ie. 
a spec or a law), or you have to appeal to convention (ie. typical use 
in a community). If you can't point to a rule, then the concept has no 
technical or legal standing. And if you appeal to convention, then 
you've conceded most of the argument.

Or are you making a moral argument?

Cheers,


Miles
Received on Wednesday, 2 April 2003 07:38:33 GMT

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.2.0+W3C-0.50 : Monday, 7 December 2009 10:51:58 GMT