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RE: [css3-fonts] Synthesizing oblique, to which direction in RTL and vertical flow?

From: Koji Ishii <kojiishi@gluesoft.co.jp>
Date: Mon, 4 Feb 2013 12:13:34 -0500
To: Andrew Cunningham <acunningham@slv.vic.gov.au>
CC: "CJK discussion (public-i18n-cjk@w3.org)" <public-i18n-cjk@w3.org>, "public-i18n-bidi@w3.org" <public-i18n-bidi@w3.org>, "www-style@w3.org" <www-style@w3.org>, Ambrose LI <ambrose.li@gmail.com>, "'WWW International' (www-international@w3.org)" <www-international@w3.org>
Message-ID: <A592E245B36A8949BDB0A302B375FB4E201BF473A1@MAILR001.mail.lan>
Same for East Asian such as Chinese and Japanese, but that issue is better to be discussed in font systems I believe.

CSS defines:

  A value of ‘italic’ selects a font that is labeled ‘italic’,

  or, if that is not available, one labeled ‘oblique’. If no

  italic or oblique faces is available, an oblique face can

  by synthesized by rendering the normal face with a

  sloping transformation applied.
so how UAs synthesize oblique face consistently is an CSS issue, but how to label a separate font family as ‘italic’ or ‘oblique’ is an issue in the font system such as OpenType.


From: andj.cunningham@gmail.com [mailto:andj.cunningham@gmail.com] On Behalf Of Andrew Cunningham
Sent: Monday, February 04, 2013 3:48 AM
To: Koji Ishii
Cc: CJK discussion (public-i18n-cjk@w3.org); public-i18n-bidi@w3.org; www-style@w3.org; Ambrose LI; 'WWW International' (www-international@w3.org)
Subject: RE: [css3-fonts] Synthesizing oblique, to which direction in RTL and vertical flow?

For some SE Asian scripts oblique and slanted fonts would be a separate font family rather than an oblique style of a font family.

On Feb 4, 2013 6:25 PM, "Koji Ishii" <kojiishi@gluesoft.co.jp<mailto:kojiishi@gluesoft.co.jp>> wrote:
> I might be wrong but I believe this is language dependent. AFAIK in Hebrew the slant would
> be to the right (i.e., same as LTR scripts); but Arabic and Persian slant to the opposite
> direction, to the left.
Don't know either, but a page[1] says:

  Hebrew doesn't have them. But people want and would use them.
  It is not true that "italics that are leaning right is acceptable". Left
  leaning italics are actually preferable.

The first sentence applies to Japanese too; professionals think "Japanese doesn't have Italics," but people want and actually use them. We can't find the right answer from the history but need to invent the most appropriate answer.

[1] http://typophile.com/node/49385?page=2


Received on Monday, 4 February 2013 17:14:06 UTC

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