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Re: 2 many language tags for Norwegian

From: John Cowan <cowan@ccil.org>
Date: Wed, 30 Apr 2008 11:41:41 -0400
To: Leif Halvard Silli <lhs@malform.no>
Cc: Frank Ellermann <hmdmhdfmhdjmzdtjmzdtzktdkztdjz@gmail.com>, www-international@w3.org
Message-ID: <20080430154141.GA4759@mercury.ccil.org>

Leif Halvard Silli scripsit:

> So sad. To refer to Western Frisian, one can use fy-DE, but for Northern 
> Frisian one must use a completely other pattern - frr.

Rightly Western Frisian is simply "fy"; "fy-NL" would be redundant, and
"fy-DE" would mean the variety of Western Frisian spoken in Germany, which
almost certainly does not exist.

> But why must the -DK only refer to Denmark? I take it to refer to the 
> "official" Danish flavour of signlanguage.

There is no one sign language -- sign languages are as alike or as different
as spoken languages.  English and American Sign Languages, for example, are
completely different, as mutually unintelligible as English and French.
As I posted earlier, though, French and American Sign Language have a common
origin, and some degree of mutual intelligibility may exist.

> According to Wikipedia, Signlangauges *can* be grouped in 
> languages/dialects close to each others. Japanese and Danish will not be 
> be close, then, I suppose. But the Scandinavian* signlanguages will be.

In fact yes.

> >Unfortunately plain Frisian was lost hundreds of years ago.
> So was plain Norwegian.

Not really comparable.

That you can cover for the plentiful            John Cowan
and often gaping errors, misconstruals,         http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
and disinformation in your posts                cowan@ccil.org
through sheer volume -- that is another
misconception.  --Mike to Peter
Received on Wednesday, 30 April 2008 15:42:16 UTC

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