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RE: Change in definition of RDF literals

From: <Patrick.Stickler@nokia.com>
Date: Thu, 15 May 2003 09:13:52 +0300
Message-ID: <A03E60B17132A84F9B4BB5EEDE57957B01B90DDE@trebe006.europe.nokia.com>
To: <jjc@hpl.hp.com>, <w3c-rdfcore-wg@w3.org>


But your text in the proposed resolution does not say that.

It seems to say that the lexical form is canonicalized. If
the L2V mapping is equality, and the value space is made
up of canonicalized XML literals, then one could not have
anything but a canonicalized XML literal in the actual
graph.

No?

Patrick

> -----Original Message-----
> From: ext Jeremy Carroll [mailto:jjc@hpl.hp.com]
> Sent: 14 May, 2003 15:12
> To: w3c-rdfcore-wg@w3.org
> Subject: RE: Change in definition of RDF literals
> 
> 
> 
> 
> > Are you then presuming that the lexical form in the graph is
> > canonicalized?
> 
> That was the reagle-01 and reagle-02 issues.
> We had some call to simplify the model, and we have done so; 
> noting that 
> implementors may do exactly as you suggest.
> 
> Jeremy
> 
> 
> 
Received on Thursday, 15 May 2003 02:13:56 EDT

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