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RE: Answer to the question: What is a "value" to RDF

From: <Patrick.Stickler@nokia.com>
Date: Fri, 16 Nov 2001 14:33:56 +0200
Message-ID: <2BF0AD29BC31FE46B7887732114404316217E2@trebe003.NOE.Nokia.com>
To: melnik@db.stanford.edu, phayes@ai.uwf.edu
Cc: w3c-rdfcore-wg@w3.org
> > >To do that, it would have to
> > >identify the value being mapped to. All it does in infer that
> > >such a mapping exists.
> > 
> > No, the mapping is named right there in the triple, eg 
> 'xsd:integer'.

OK, I'm now reading 'mapping' as meaning the pairing of a lexical
form to a data type, such that the lexical form corresponds to
one and only one value in the value space of the data type, but
the *mapping* itself doesn't say which that is.

Eh?

If that's a correct interpretation, then I agree that such a
"mapping" does not have to use any representation for that
actual value.

> In
> particular, using my:age has little to do with datatyping, since "12"
> still denotes just a string. No type is assigned to "12" by using the
> property my:age. 

I don't see where you get that. What if the defined value space
for the my:age data type was years and the lexical form defined
integer notation?

Seems to me that a given data type is free to have as complex a
value space as it likes and as complex a corresponding lexical
space as is needed.

Are you saying that given 

   xxx --foo:date--> "2001-11-29"

that foo:date is not a data type?

And for that matter, just *how* do you differentiate a data
type property from a non-data type property, which your
example above for my:date seems to imply?


Patrick
Received on Friday, 16 November 2001 07:34:40 EST

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