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Nullable union types containing other nullable types

From: Boris Zbarsky <bzbarsky@MIT.EDU>
Date: Wed, 11 Apr 2012 12:35:50 -0400
Message-ID: <4F85B2E6.1070401@mit.edu>
To: "public-script-coord@w3.org" <public-script-coord@w3.org>
Consider this idl:

   void foo((A? or B)? arg);

Is this allowed?  At first glance, it is.

Should this be allowed?  I guess there's no reason it shouldn't be; it 
just seems weird to write IDL like that...  Passing null or undefined 
would just convert to IDL null because the union is nullable, o the '?' 
after A is just pointless, right?

-Boris
Received on Wednesday, 11 April 2012 16:36:26 UTC

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