I'm working through the testcases and wondering about this test case: http://www.w3.org/2001/sw/DataAccess/tests/#extendedtype-ne-fail which tests the decision that opaque types can not be tested for != . I understand the intent, but wonder how that is justified given the definition of A != B as fn:not(RDFterm-equal(A, B))? I guess A != B is in fact something like: if A and B are literals of unsupported type A != B is false else A != B is fn:not(RDFterm-equal(A, B))? Is that right? Some clarification of this in the docs would be good if so. FWIW, I think it would have been a better decision to say that RDFterm-equal of unsupported datatypes is a type exception if the lexical values aren't the same (and so != would be as well). Thanks, -GeoffReceived on Friday, 7 April 2006 16:40:33 GMT
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