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Re: [Bug 3062] Need to write examples in the spec as valid XML

From: Sebastian Rahtz <Sebastian.Rahtz@oucs.ox.ac.uk>
Date: Fri, 31 Mar 2006 12:41:01 +0100
Message-ID: <442D154D.2000400@oucs.ox.ac.uk>
To: Felix Sasaki <fsasaki@w3.org>
CC: bugzilla@wiggum.w3.org, public-i18n-its@w3.org



Felix Sasaki wrote:

> 
> I thought of this separation because depending on the schema design, you
> would use different means. E.g., a highly modularized schema might use
> PEs / patterns / groups to add ITS attributes to all elements, e.g.
> <!ENTITY % comm.att ".... %its-local-att;">
> A schema without such entity layers might just do
> <!ATTLIST ... its:translate
>               its:term
> ...>
> 
> for each element.

Hmm. I see. But if the schema is not normative, where do we tell people
that if they implement the markup, it must follow these constraints?
For example, if <translateRule> has a mandatory attribute "selector",
but the schema implementing this is not normative, people can implement
it with an optional attribute. Doesn't this threaten interoperability?

> However, both schemas would be conformant to
> http://www.w3.org/International/its/itstagset/itstagset.html#conformance-product-schema

I could come up with something that conformed to this, but wasn't
remotely like the current schemas...

>> are schemas/dtds always non-normative in W3C specs?
>>
> 
> It depends on the spec. E.g., XML Schema defines a normative schema,
> see http://www.w3.org/TR/xmlschema-1/#normative-schemaSchema
> XSLT 2.0 a non-normative one, see
> http://www.w3.org/TR/xslt20/#schema-for-xslt

but XSLT has an independent formal definition, no?
-- 
Sebastian Rahtz

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Received on Friday, 31 March 2006 11:41:18 UTC

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