- From: Dave Reynolds <der@hplb.hpl.hp.com>
- Date: Thu, 19 Aug 2004 15:34:05 +0100
- To: "Miles, AJ (Alistair) " <A.J.Miles@rl.ac.uk>
- Cc: "'public-esw-thes@w3.org'" <public-esw-thes@w3.org>, "'public-esw@w3.org'" <public-esw@w3.org>
Hi Al, > If a datatype property is declared as an InverseFunctionalProperty, does the > datatype get taken into account when inferring identity of individuals? Yes. Two literals are only equal if they denote the same value. The datatype defines the value space so two literals with the same lexical representation but different datatypes can easily denote different values and be different resources. [Note that using IFP for a DatatypeProperty puts you into OWL/full.] > I.e. if 'skos:localID' was inverse functional, would the following two > individuals be smushed or not: > > ex:individualA skos:localID '001'^^<http://example.org/IDtype> > > ex:individualB skos:localID '001'^^<http://foo.org/IDtype> Depends on the definition of the the datypes from example.org and foo.org. They could denote the same value space and same lexical to value mapping for '001' or not. If the processor had been told what those datatypes were it ought to assume by default they were distinct and not smush. Dave
Received on Thursday, 19 August 2004 14:34:11 UTC